Hello everyone,
One of the main confusion that pops is regarding the conceptual difference b/w the IRR(Internal Rate of Return ) and NPV(Net Present Value).
Now we can easily understand the underlying formulas and calculations but there is an idea that has to be understood and the best to to understand is by picking up an suitable example.
I would suggest this Wiki article for a warm up.
Example:- We need two investments for which the net NPV should be 50.
Cost of Capital = .2 or 20%
NPV one = -100 + 180(1 + .2) = 50
NPV two = -100000 + 120060(1 + .2) = 50
You cannot judge an investment based on NVP as both are same but consider the amount of money in investment two but this is just an simple case when the investments are complex its hard to judge so . So that's why we need IRR but IRR is also not the ultimate solution.
Now lets calculate IRR for the same . We need a value r' for which the NVP must be Zero.
IRR one :- -100 + 180/(1 + r') = 0
Simplify we get r' = 0.80
IRR two :- -100000 + 120060(1+r'')= 0
here r'' = .2006
Cost of Capital = .2 or 20%
Investment one: -100 180
Investment two: -100000 120060NPV one = -100 + 180(1 + .2) = 50
NPV two = -100000 + 120060(1 + .2) = 50
You cannot judge an investment based on NVP as both are same but consider the amount of money in investment two but this is just an simple case when the investments are complex its hard to judge so . So that's why we need IRR but IRR is also not the ultimate solution.
Now lets calculate IRR for the same . We need a value r' for which the NVP must be Zero.
IRR one :- -100 + 180/(1 + r') = 0
Simplify we get r' = 0.80
IRR two :- -100000 + 120060(1+r'')= 0
here r'' = .2006
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